SCIENCE (Q)

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs):

1. Which of the following is a chemical change? a) Melting of ice b) Dissolution of salt in water c) Burning of paper d) Boiling of water
2. In a chemical reaction, the substances present before the reaction are called: a) Products b) Reactants c) Catalysts d) Byproducts
3. Which type of reaction involves the breakdown of a single compound into two or more simpler substances? a) Combination reaction b) Decomposition reaction c) Displacement reaction d) Double displacement reaction
4. The number of molecules of reactants and products are equal in which type of reaction? a) Combination reaction b) Decomposition reaction c) Displacement reaction d) Double displacement reaction
5. Which of the following is not a balanced chemical equation? a) 2H₂ + O₂ → 2H₂O b) Na + Cl₂ → NaCl c) CH₄ + O₂ → CO₂ + 2H₂O d) Fe + H₂SO₄ → FeSO₄ + H₂
6. In a balanced chemical equation, the total mass of the reactants: a) Increases b) Decreases c) Remains the same d) Depends on the reaction
7. Which of the following is a displacement reaction? a) 2Mg + O₂ → 2MgO b) FeSO₄ + Zn → ZnSO₄ + Fe c) CaCO₃ → CaO + CO₂ d) CH₄ + 2O₂ → CO₂ + 2H₂O
8. The process of respiration is an example of which type of reaction? a) Combination reaction b) Decomposition reaction c) Displacement reaction d) Redox reaction
9. The sum of coefficients in a balanced chemical equation represents the: a) Number of atoms b) Mass of reactants c) Mass of products d) Number of molecules
10. Which of the following statements is true for an exothermic reaction? a) It absorbs heat from the surroundings. b) It releases heat to the surroundings. c) It doesn’t involve heat changes. d) It occurs only in living organisms.

True or False:

11. In a chemical reaction, new substances are formed. (True/False)
12. Combustion reactions are always exothermic. (True/False)
13. In a balanced chemical equation, the number of atoms of each element is the same on both sides. (True/False)
14. Displacement reactions are redox reactions. (True/False)
15. Decomposition reactions always require an external energy source to occur. (True/False)
16. The reactant that gets oxidized is called the reducing agent. (True/False)
17. Hydrogen gas can displace metals from their salts. (True/False)
18. Precipitation reactions are a type of double displacement reaction. (True/False)
19. Catalysts are consumed during a chemical reaction. (True/False)
20. Photosynthesis is a decomposition reaction. (True/False)

Fill in the Blanks:

21. The chemical equation for the reaction of magnesium with oxygen is ____.
22. The process of rusting of iron is an example of _______ reaction.
23. A balanced chemical equation satisfies the law of _______ of mass.
24. The reactant that undergoes reduction is called the _______.
25. The substance that speeds up a chemical reaction without being consumed is called a _______.
26. The sum of the oxidation numbers in a neutral compound is _______.
27. In the reaction, CuSO₄ + Zn → ZnSO₄ + Cu, zinc is getting _______.
28. The chemical formula for water is _______.
29. The decomposition of a substance by the action of an electric current is called _______.
30. In a redox reaction, oxidation and reduction occur _______.

Short Answer Questions:

31. Define a chemical reaction.
32. Differentiate between physical change and chemical change.
33. Write the balanced chemical equation for the reaction between sodium and water.
34. How can you classify chemical reactions based on the nature of reactants?
35. Explain the terms ‘oxidation’ and ‘reduction’ in terms of electron transfer.
36. Why do we balance chemical equations?
37. What is meant by a redox reaction? Provide an example.
38. How is the rusting of iron a combination of oxidation and reduction?
39. Describe the role of a catalyst in a chemical reaction.
40. Explain the term ‘displacement reaction’ with an example.

Long Answer Questions:

41. Describe the five signs that indicate a chemical reaction has occurred.
42. Discuss the role of energy changes in chemical reactions, with examples.
43. Explain the concept of balancing chemical equations using the example of the reaction between methane and oxygen.
44. Write a note on the role of oxidation and reduction in our daily life.
45. Explain the different steps involved in balancing a chemical equation using the example of the reaction between iron and sulfur.
46. Discuss the applications of displacement reactions in everyday life.
47. Describe the process of corrosion with suitable examples.
48. Explain the law of conservation of mass with respect to chemical reactions.
49. Differentiate between endothermic and exothermic reactions with examples.
50. Discuss the types of decomposition reactions with relevant equations.

Remember, these questions cover a range of difficulty levels and question types to cater to the various abilities of your students. Feel free to modify or adapt these questions as needed to align with your teaching style and the specific needs of your class

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs):

1. Which of the following substances turns blue litmus paper red? a) Acid b) Base c) Salt d) Neutral substance
2. What is the pH value of a neutral substance? a) 0 b) 1 c) 7 d) 14
3. Baking soda is a common name for which compound? a) Sodium hydroxide b) Sodium bicarbonate c) Sodium chloride d) Sulfuric acid
4. Which of the following is a strong acid? a) Vinegar b) Lemon juice c) Hydrochloric acid d) Milk
5. When an acid reacts with a metal, the products formed are: a) Salt and hydrogen gas b) Salt and oxygen gas c) Salt and water d) Salt and carbon dioxide gas
6. Ammonia is an example of a: a) Strong acid b) Weak acid c) Strong base d) Weak base
7. Which of the following is not a characteristic of bases? a) Bitter taste b) Turns red litmus blue c) Reacts with metals to produce hydrogen gas d) Conducts electricity in aqueous solution
8. What is the name of the salt produced when hydrochloric acid reacts with sodium hydroxide? a) Sodium chloride b) Sodium hydroxide c) Sodium bicarbonate d) Sodium sulfate
9. Which substance has a pH value less than 7? a) Neutral substance b) Basic substance c) Acidic substance d) Salt
10. Which indicator is commonly used to test whether a substance is acidic or basic? a) Phenolphthalein b) Methyl orange c) Litmus paper d) Bromothymol blue

Fill in the Blanks:

11. Acids release __________ ions in water.
12. A solution with a pH of 9 is considered __________.
13. The reaction between an acid and a base is called __________.
14. Bases feel __________ to touch.
15. The pH scale ranges from __________ to __________.
16. A solution with a pH of 7 is __________.
17. When an acid reacts with a metal, __________ gas is produced.
18. The chemical name of baking soda is __________.
19. An aqueous solution of a base turns red litmus paper __________.
20. The process of adding an acid or base to a solution to determine its pH is called __________.

True or False:

21. Acids have a slippery feel.
22. Vinegar is a weak acid.
23. A solution with a pH of 1 is neutral.
24. A neutralization reaction results in the formation of water and salt.
25. A solution with a pH of 10 is basic.
26. All salts are soluble in water.
27. Hydrochloric acid is a weak acid.
28. Bases react with metals to produce hydrogen gas.
29. Ammonium hydroxide is a strong base.
30. A solution with a pH of 14 is strongly acidic.

Match the Following:

31. Hydrochloric acid a) NH₄OH
32. Calcium hydroxide b) HCl
33. Acetic acid c) KOH
34. Sodium hydroxide d) CH₃COOH
35. Ammonium hydroxide e) Ca(OH)₂

Short Answer Questions:

36. Define an acid according to Arrhenius theory.
37. What is the common name of sodium bicarbonate?
38. Differentiate between a strong acid and a weak acid.
39. Explain the process of neutralization with an example.
40. Why does a milk of magnesia solution work as an antacid?
41. Why is the pH scale logarithmic in nature?
42. How does the concentration of hydrogen ions relate to the pH value of a solution?

Diagram-Based Questions:

43. Draw the molecular structure of acetic acid (ethanoic acid).
44. Illustrate the setup of an experiment to show the reaction between hydrochloric acid and sodium hydroxide.

Long Answer Questions:

45. Explain the importance of pH in everyday life with examples.
46. Describe the process of the reaction between an acid and a metal.
47. Discuss the differences between physical properties of acids and bases.
48. Explain how indicators work and provide examples of natural indicators.
49. Describe the process of making soap with the help of a chemical equation.

Application-Based Questions:

50. You have a solution with a pH of 8. Is this solution acidic or basic? Explain.
51. How can you test whether a given white powder is an acid or a base?
52. Suggest an application of neutralization reaction in our daily life.
53. Why is it advisable to add a small amount of baking soda to the water used for cooking pulses?
54. Explain the role of antacids in relieving acidity.

Remember to adjust the number of questions based on the time available for the assessment and the emphasis you wish to place on different question types.

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

1. Which of the following is a physical property of metals? a) Brittle b) Dullness c) Poor conductor of heat d) Malleable
2. Which of the following is a non-metal? a) Copper b) Iron c) Oxygen d) Silver
3. Which metal is used for making electrical wires due to its high conductivity? a) Aluminium b) Iron c) Gold d) Mercury
4. Which of the following is a chemical property of metals? a) High brittleness b) High reactivity with water c) Low melting point d) Low electrical conductivity
5. What property allows metals to be hammered into thin sheets? a) Ductility b) Conductivity c) Malleability d) Luster
6. Which of the following non-metals is present in all organic compounds? a) Carbon b) Oxygen c) Nitrogen d) Hydrogen
7. Which non-metal is used in the preparation of ammonia? a) Nitrogen b) Oxygen c) Hydrogen d) Sulphur
8. Which metal is a liquid at room temperature? a) Copper b) Iron c) Mercury d) Silver
9. What happens when metals react with acids? a) They turn into non-metals b) They become more brittle c) They release hydrogen gas d) They lose their luster
10. Which metal is used in galvanization to prevent rusting of iron? a) Aluminium b) Copper c) Zinc d) Silver

True or False Questions

11. Metals are generally poor conductors of electricity. (True/False)
12. Sodium is a non-metal. (True/False)
13. Non-metals are generally brittle. (True/False)
14. Gold is a non-reactive metal. (True/False)
15. Non-metals do not form oxides. (True/False)
16. Iron rusting is an example of a chemical change. (True/False)
17. Hydrogen gas is evolved when metals react with acids. (True/False)
18. Malleability is the property of being able to be stretched into wires. (True/False)
19. Oxygen supports combustion. (True/False)
20. Aluminium is a non-reactive metal. (True/False)

Fill in the Blanks

21. _________ is a metal that is used in making aircraft bodies due to its lightness.
22. The property of metals to be drawn into wires is called _________.
23. _________ is a non-metal that exists as a diatomic molecule in its natural state.
24. Metals lose electrons to form _________ ions.
25. The reaction of a metal with oxygen is termed as _________.
26. A mixture of powdered iron and _________ is used to fill cracks in iron objects.
27. Metals and non-metals usually have different _________ properties.
28. The element _________ is a good conductor of heat and electricity.
29. _________ is the most abundant metal in the Earth’s crust.
30. The tarnishing of silver is a _________ change.

Matching Questions

31. Match the following metals with their uses: a) Aluminium 1) Making jewelry b) Copper 2) Making electrical wires c) Gold 3) Making airplane parts d) Iron 4) Galvanization
32. Match the following non-metals with their properties: a) Carbon 1) Good conductor of electricity b) Oxygen 2) High reactivity with water c) Hydrogen 3) Supports combustion d) Chlorine 4) Essential for organic compounds

Short Answer Questions

33. Differentiate between metals and non-metals based on their physical properties.
34. Explain why metals are good conductors of electricity.
35. How does the reactivity of metals change as we move from left to right in the periodic table?
36. Why do metals usually form basic oxides?
37. Give an example of a metal that reacts vigorously with water. Write the balanced chemical equation for the reaction.
38. Describe the process of rusting of iron.
39. State two uses of non-metals in everyday life.
40. Why are gold and platinum considered to be noble metals?

Long Answer Questions

41. Discuss the significance of the reactivity series of metals in predicting their behavior in various reactions.
42. Explain why the extraction of metals from their ores is a reduction process.
43. Describe how metals and non-metals react with oxygen. Provide suitable examples and balanced chemical equations.
44. Compare and contrast the properties of metals and non-metals.
45. Discuss the importance of zinc in galvanization. Explain how this process prevents the rusting of iron.
46. Differentiate between the physical properties of metals and non-metals with the help of examples.
47. Explain how the rusting of iron is different from the burning of a candle.
48. Discuss the uses of aluminium and its significance as a light metal in transportation industries.

Application-based Questions

49. How can you test the electrical conductivity of a given material? Give an example of a substance that will conduct electricity.
50. Suppose you are given a piece of metal and you are asked to determine whether it is iron or copper. Describe the tests you would perform.
51. Suggest an experiment to prove that oxygen supports combustion. Write the procedure and expected observations.
52. Imagine you have a piece of metal and you need to find out whether it is more reactive than hydrogen. Outline the steps you would follow to test this.
53. Explain why cooking utensils are usually made of metals. How does the specific property of metals make them suitable for this purpose?
54. Discuss how the reactivity of metals influences the choice of metals for making water pipes in homes.
55. Design an experiment to show the reaction between a metal and a dilute acid. Write the required materials, procedure, and expected results.

Remember, these questions cover a wide range of cognitive levels, from knowledge and understanding to application and analysis. It’s important to use these questions to assess students’ comprehensive understanding of the chapter.

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs):

1. Which of the following elements is the basis for the study of organic chemistry? a) Hydrogen b) Carbon c) Oxygen d) Nitrogen
2. Which type of carbon compound has a hydroxyl functional group? a) Aldehyde b) Ketone c) Alcohol d) Carboxylic acid
3. What is the general formula for alkanes? a) CnH2n+1 b) CnH2n c) CnH2n-2 d) CnH2n+2
4. Which of the following compounds is an example of an alkane? a) Ethanol b) Ethene c) Methane d) Ethanoic acid
5. A compound containing a carbonyl group is called: a) Ketone b) Alkene c) Alcohol d) Alkyne
6. What is the name of the compound CH3COOH? a) Ethanol b) Ethanoic acid c) Methanoic acid d) Methanol
7. Which type of carbon compound contains a double bond between carbon atoms? a) Alkane b) Alkene c) Alkyne d) Alcohol
8. The functional group -COOH is present in: a) Aldehydes b) Ketones c) Carboxylic acids d) Esters
9. Which of the following compounds is used in making soap? a) Ethanol b) Glycerol c) Propanol d) Methanol
10. The simplest aromatic compound is: a) Benzene b) Toluene c) Phenol d) Ethanol

Fill in the Blanks:

11. The study of carbon compounds is known as __________.
12. The chemical formula of methane is __________.
13. A carbon compound containing a carbonyl group within its structure is called a __________.
14. The general formula for alkenes is __________.
15. The functional group -OH is found in __________.
16. The systematic name for CH3CHO is __________.
17. In alkanes, carbon atoms are bonded by __________ bonds.
18. The process of converting fats into soap is called __________.
19. The aromatic compound with the molecular formula C6H6 is __________.
20. The process of breaking down complex organic substances into simpler ones is called __________.

True or False:

21. Alkynes contain at least one triple bond between carbon atoms.
22. An alkene has the general formula CnH2n.
23. Esters are commonly found in fruits, contributing to their fruity aroma.
24. Methanol is also known as wood alcohol.
25. Organic compounds can only be synthesized in a laboratory setting.
26. Unsaturated hydrocarbons contain only single bonds between carbon atoms.
27. Benzene is an example of a saturated hydrocarbon.
28. Alcohols are characterized by the presence of a carbonyl group.
29. Isomers have the same molecular formula but different structural arrangements.
30. Carbon compounds are essential for life processes and have no practical applications.

Short Answer Questions:

31. Define a carbon compound.
32. Differentiate between alkanes, alkenes, and alkynes.
33. Explain the concept of isomerism with an example.
34. Describe the functional group present in carboxylic acids.
35. How are esters formed? Provide an example.
36. Name the functional groups present in alcohols and ketones.
37. What is the difference between an aldehyde and a ketone?
38. Explain the process of saponification.
39. Why is carbon versatile in forming compounds?
40. Provide an example of an aromatic compound and its use.

Long Answer Questions:

41. Discuss the importance of carbon compounds in daily life.
42. Compare and contrast saturated and unsaturated hydrocarbons.
43. Explain the process of fermentation. Provide examples of products formed.
44. Describe the process of polymerization with suitable examples.
45. Discuss the impact of carbon compounds on environmental pollution.
46. Explain the structural differences between primary, secondary, and tertiary alcohols.
47. Analyze the functional groups present in aldehydes and ketones.
48. Explain the naming of organic compounds using IUPAC nomenclature with examples.
49. Discuss the role of carbon compounds in the pharmaceutical industry.
50. Elaborate on the significance of esters in flavor and fragrance industries.

These questions cover a range of difficulty levels and question types, adhering to the standards set by CBSE for class 10 science curriculum. Feel free to use and modify them according to your teaching needs.

Multiple Choice Questions:

1. Which of the following is not a life process? a) Respiration b) Reproduction c) Inertia d) Digestion
2. Photosynthesis occurs in the presence of: a) Oxygen b) Carbon dioxide c) Water d) Nitrogen
3. The breakdown of glucose in the absence of oxygen is called: a) Fermentation b) Respiration c) Transpiration d) Photosynthesis
4. Which of the following is not a raw material required for photosynthesis? a) Water b) Carbon dioxide c) Glucose d) Sunlight
5. Transpiration mainly occurs through which part of a plant? a) Roots b) Leaves c) Stem d) Flowers

Fill in the Blanks:

6. The process of breakdown of food in cells to release energy is called __________.
7. The process of intake of nutrients by an organism and its utilization is called __________.
8. The process by which green plants make their own food using sunlight is called __________.
9. The small openings on the surface of leaves through which exchange of gases occurs are called __________.
10. The waste product of respiration in plants is __________.

True/False:

11. True/False: All living organisms perform respiration.
12. True/False: Excretion is a part of nutrition.
13. True/False: Breathing and respiration are the same processes.
14. True/False: Transpiration helps in the absorption of water from the soil.
15. True/False: Photosynthesis occurs only during the night.

Short Answer Questions:

16. Explain the difference between autotrophic and heterotrophic modes of nutrition.
17. Describe the process of transpiration in plants.
18. How does respiration help in the release of energy from food?
19. Mention two differences between respiration in plants and respiration in animals.
20. Why is the process of excretion important in living organisms?

Long Answer Questions:

21. Explain the process of photosynthesis, highlighting the role of chlorophyll and sunlight.
22. Describe the structure and functioning of stomata. How do they regulate the process of transpiration?
23. Compare aerobic and anaerobic respiration, including their end products and energy yield.
24. Differentiate between respiration and breathing. Explain why respiration is essential for all living organisms.
25. Elaborate on the importance of nutrition and excretion in maintaining the life processes of organisms.

Application-Based Questions:

26. How can the process of transpiration be affected by factors like humidity and wind?
27. Imagine you are a plant cell. Describe how you would obtain energy through photosynthesis and release energy through respiration.
28. How can the lack of proper nutrition lead to health issues in humans? Provide examples.
29. Discuss how various life processes in plants contribute to the overall growth and development of the plant.
30. Analyze how disruptions in the process of excretion can lead to toxin buildup in the body.

Higher-Order Thinking Questions:

31. Can an organism survive without performing any life processes? Justify your answer.
32. Investigate and explain how aquatic plants perform photosynthesis when they are submerged underwater.
33. Discuss the role of enzymes in the process of digestion and its significance for overall health.
34. How do you think advancements in technology have influenced our understanding of life processes in organisms?
35. Critically analyze the statement: “Life processes are the foundation of the functioning of living organisms.”

Remember that these questions are meant to cover a wide range of cognitive levels and test various aspects of understanding of the chapter. They can be used for assessments, discussions, and self-study purposes.

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs):

1. Which system controls and coordinates the functions of various parts of the body? a) Digestive system b) Muscular system c) Nervous system d) Circulatory system
2. The basic functional unit of the nervous system is: a) Neuron b) Cell c) Blood vessel d) Muscle fiber
3. Which part of the brain is responsible for voluntary movements and thinking? a) Medulla oblongata b) Cerebellum c) Cerebrum d) Hypothalamus
4. Reflex actions are controlled by which part of the nervous system? a) Central nervous system b) Peripheral nervous system c) Autonomic nervous system d) Sympathetic nervous system
5. The longest nerve in the human body is: a) Optic nerve b) Sciatic nerve c) Facial nerve d) Vestibulocochlear nerve
6. The hormone responsible for fight-or-flight responses is: a) Insulin b) Adrenaline c) Estrogen d) Testosterone
7. The process by which a plant responds to light is called: a) Tropic movement b) Nastic movement c) Phototropism d) Geotropism
8. Which part of the brain controls involuntary actions like heartbeat and respiration? a) Cerebrum b) Cerebellum c) Medulla oblongata d) Thalamus
9. Which of the following is an example of a plant hormone? a) Insulin b) Adrenaline c) Gibberellin d) Thyroxine
10. The coordination between a sensory neuron and a motor neuron occurs at the: a) Synapse b) Axon c) Dendrite d) Cell body

Very Short Answer Questions:

11. Define the term ‘stimulus’.
12. Name the two types of coordination found in organisms.
13. What is the main function of the spinal cord?
14. What is a reflex arc?
15. Mention one example of a tropic movement in plants.
16. What is the role of the hormone insulin?
17. Differentiate between voluntary and involuntary actions.
18. What is the role of the hormone thyroxine?
19. Name the part of the brain that regulates body temperature.
20. Give an example of a plant hormone that promotes cell elongation.

Short Answer Questions:

21. Explain the pathway of a reflex arc.
22. How does the sympathetic nervous system prepare the body for a fight-or-flight response?
23. Describe the process of phototropism in plants.
24. Explain the role of the hypothalamus in maintaining homeostasis.
25. Differentiate between hormones and neurotransmitters.
26. How does the human ear maintain balance?
27. What are the functions of auxins in plants?
28. Describe the role of the medulla oblongata in the human body.
29. How does the brain control voluntary actions?
30. Explain how a plant responds to gravitropic stimuli.

Long Answer Questions:

31. Describe the structure and functions of a neuron.
32. Explain the concept of homeostasis with relevant examples.
33. How do hormones coordinate responses in plants and animals? Give examples.
34. Discuss the role of the nervous system in controlling and coordinating bodily activities.
35. Explain the different types of tropic movements in plants with suitable examples.
36. Compare and contrast the functions of the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems.
37. Describe the role of the endocrine system in growth and development.
38. How does the human eye adapt to varying light conditions?
39. Explain the process of transmission of nerve impulses.
40. Discuss the significance of coordination in living organisms.

These questions cover a range of cognitive levels and can be used to assess various aspects of understanding and application related to the chapter “Control and Coordination” in Class 10 Science according to CBSE standards.

Multiple Choice Questions:

1. What is the primary purpose of reproduction in organisms? a) Growth b) Adaptation c) Maintenance d) Continuation of the species
2. Which of the following is an example of asexual reproduction? a) Humans giving birth b) Fish laying eggs c) Bacteria dividing d) Birds building nests
3. What is binary fission? a) A type of budding b) A type of sexual reproduction c) Division of a cell into two equal parts d) A form of spore formation
4. In sexual reproduction, genetic material is received from: a) One parent b) Multiple parents c) Neighboring organisms d) Two parents
5. What is the main advantage of asexual reproduction? a) Genetic variation b) Survival in changing environments c) Rapid population growth d) Increased competition

Fill in the Blanks:

6. Budding is a form of __________ reproduction.
7. The fusion of male and female gametes is called __________ reproduction.
8. In humans, the male gamete is called __________.
9. Spores are produced by a process called __________.
10. Sexual reproduction leads to __________ genetic variation.

True or False:

11. Asexual reproduction results in genetic diversity. (False)
12. Plants can reproduce both sexually and asexually. (True)
13. Binary fission is a type of sexual reproduction. (False)
14. Spore formation is a form of asexual reproduction. (True)
15. Sexual reproduction involves the formation of gametes. (True)

Short Answer Questions:

16. Define reproduction.
17. Differentiate between asexual and sexual reproduction.
18. Explain the process of budding.
19. What is the significance of spore formation in fungi?
20. How does sexual reproduction contribute to genetic variation?

Long Answer Questions:

21. Describe three different modes of asexual reproduction.
22. Explain the process of binary fission with an example.
23. Compare and contrast internal and external fertilization.
24. Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of sexual reproduction.
25. How do organisms that reproduce through spore formation ensure survival in unfavorable conditions?

Application Questions:

26. Why is asexual reproduction more common in simpler organisms like bacteria and fungi?
27. Imagine you are a scientist studying a new organism. Describe what observations you would make to determine its mode of reproduction.
28. Discuss how certain plants can reproduce through both vegetative propagation and sexual reproduction.
29. How might a change in the environment influence an organism’s choice of reproduction mode?
30. Why is sexual reproduction considered more complex than asexual reproduction?

Case-Based Questions:

31. In a pond ecosystem, explain how different types of aquatic organisms reproduce and contribute to the ecosystem’s biodiversity.
32. Imagine a scenario where a species relies solely on asexual reproduction. What challenges could this species face over time?
33. Investigate the life cycle of a mushroom. How does spore formation contribute to the mushroom’s survival?
34. Consider the advantages and disadvantages of each reproductive mode for a species of your choice. Justify which mode would be more suitable in a changing environment.
35. Discuss the role of environmental factors in determining whether an organism will reproduce asexually or sexually.

Higher-Order Thinking Questions:

36. Analyze the ethical implications of using asexual reproduction in agriculture. What potential problems could arise from this practice?
37. Debate the statement: “Sexual reproduction is a more advanced and efficient mode of reproduction compared to asexual reproduction.”
38. Evaluate the statement: “Reproduction is the primary goal of all living organisms.”
39. Predict how a species’ choice of reproduction could change if the global climate becomes significantly warmer.
40. How does the existence of both sexual and asexual reproduction challenge the traditional concept of ‘survival of the fittest’?

These questions cover a wide range of cognitive levels and skills, as required by the CBSE standards, and should help in assessing students’ understanding of the chapter “How do Organisms Reproduce?”

Multiple Choice Questions:

1. Which term refers to the passing of traits from parents to offspring? a) Evolution b) Variation c) Heredity d) Selection
2. The basic unit of heredity is: a) Chromosome b) DNA c) Gene d) Allele
3. A gene’s specific location on a chromosome is called: a) Locus b) Allele c) Chromatid d) Codon
4. The different forms of a gene are known as: a) Loci b) Alleles c) Genomes d) Chromatids
5. If a trait is controlled by multiple genes, it is known as: a) Monogenic trait b) Polygenic trait c) Recessive trait d) Dominant trait
6. Mendel’s law of segregation states that: a) Genes assort independently b) Genes are inherited as a group c) Each individual has two alleles for each trait d) Alleles separate during gamete formation
7. Which of the following represents a recessive trait? a) TT b) Tt c) tt d) TTtt
8. In incomplete dominance, if a red-flowered plant (RR) is crossed with a white-flowered plant (WW), the offspring will be: a) All red-flowered b) All white-flowered c) Pink-flowered d) Red and white striped
9. A person with blood group AB has which type of alleles? a) AA b) AO c) BB d) AB
10. Hemophilia is a sex-linked recessive disorder. If a carrier female (XHXh) mates with a normal male (XY), what is the probability of their offspring being a hemophilic male? a) 0% b) 25% c) 50% d) 100%

Short Answer Questions: 11. Define heredity.

12. Differentiate between genotype and phenotype.
13. Explain Mendel’s law of independent assortment.
14. What is the significance of a Punnett square in genetics?
15. How do sex-linked traits differ from autosomal traits?
16. Explain codominance with an example.
17. Describe the process of meiosis and its role in heredity.
18. How do multiple alleles differ from polygenic traits?
19. What is genetic variation, and why is it important for a population?
20. Explain the concept of genetic disorders and provide two examples.

Long Answer Questions: 21. Describe Mendel’s experiments on pea plants and his contributions to the field of genetics.

22. Explain how the inheritance of blood groups follows the principles of Mendelian genetics.
23. Discuss the differences between dominant and recessive traits with suitable examples.
24. How does the environment influence gene expression? Provide examples.
25. Explain how genetic recombination occurs during meiosis, contributing to genetic diversity.
26. Describe the structure of DNA and its role in transmitting hereditary information.
27. What is a pedigree analysis? How can it be used to determine the inheritance pattern of a trait in a family?
28. Explain the concept of incomplete dominance and provide an example from plants or animals.
29. Discuss the ethical considerations related to genetic engineering and cloning.
30. Describe the role of mutations in the process of evolution.

Application-Based Questions: 31. A family has a history of color blindness. If a color-blind man marries a woman with normal vision, what are the possible genotypes and phenotypes of their children?

32. A plant with red flowers (RR) is crossed with a plant with white flowers (rr). Predict the genotype and phenotype of the F1 generation. If two F1 plants are crossed, what would be the genotypic and phenotypic ratios in the F2 generation?
33. In humans, attached earlobes (EE or Ee) are dominant over free earlobes (ee). A woman with attached earlobes marries a man with free earlobes and they have a child with attached earlobes. What are the possible genotypes of the parents?
34. Hemoglobin is a protein responsible for oxygen transport in the blood. Explain how a mutation in the hemoglobin gene can lead to genetic disorders like sickle cell anemia.
35. Discuss the genetic and environmental factors contributing to a person’s height.

Remember to tailor these questions to your student’s level of understanding and the depth of your curriculum.

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs):

1. What is the bouncing back of light from a surface called? a) Refraction b) Absorption c) Reflection d) Diffraction
2. Which of the following is an example of a translucent object? a) Mirror b) Glass slab c) Wooden board d) Metal spoon
3. The change in direction of light when it passes from one medium to another is called: a) Reflection b) Refraction c) Absorption d) Diffraction
4. The image formed in a plane mirror is: a) Real and inverted b) Virtual and erect c) Real and erect d) Virtual and inverted
5. A concave mirror: a) Diverges parallel rays of light b) Converges parallel rays of light c) Forms only virtual images d) Forms only real images

Fill in the Blanks: 6. When light passes from air to water, it bends due to the phenomenon of ________________.

7. The angle between the incident ray and the normal is called the ________________ angle.
8. The image formed by a convex lens when the object is placed between the lens and the focus is ________________.
9. The angle of incidence is equal to the angle of ________________.
10. The distance between the pole of a mirror and its focus is called the ________________.

True or False: 11. A convex lens always forms a virtual and diminished image.

12. The speed of light changes when it passes from one medium to another.
13. A concave mirror always forms a real and inverted image.
14. A concave lens always forms a virtual and erect image.
15. The image formed in a plane mirror is always smaller than the object.

Match the Following: 16. Law of Reflection (a) Refraction

17. Convex lens (b) Diverging mirror
18. Concave lens (c) Virtual and erect image
19. Concave mirror (d) Incident ray, reflected ray, normal
20. Glass prism (e) Dispersion of light

Short Answer Questions: 21. Explain the difference between regular and diffuse reflection.

22. State the laws of reflection.
23. Why does a straight stick appear bent when placed in water?
24. How does the focal length of a lens affect its ability to converge or diverge light?
25. Give an example of each: transparent, translucent, and opaque objects.

Long Answer Questions: 26. Explain the formation of a rainbow in the sky.

27. A concave mirror produces an image of magnification -0.5. Explain the characteristics of the image.
28. Describe the process of refraction of light using the example of a coin placed in a glass of water.
29. How does the human eye focus on objects at different distances? Explain the role of the lens in this process.
30. Describe the working of a periscope and its applications.

Remember that these are just sample questions. To create a comprehensive set of 90 questions, you can combine and modify the above examples, include questions that test application and analytical skills, and make sure to cover all the key concepts of the chapter as outlined in the CBSE curriculum.

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs):

1. Which part of the human eye controls the amount of light entering it? a) Retina b) Iris c) Cornea d) Lens
2. The clear front surface of the eye is called the: a) Retina b) Cornea c) Lens d) Pupil
3. The image formed on the retina is: a) Real and inverted b) Real and upright c) Virtual and inverted d) Virtual and upright
4. The condition where the eyeball is too long and distant objects are focused in front of the retina is called: a) Hypermetropia b) Myopia c) Astigmatism d) Presbyopia
5. The phenomenon responsible for the formation of a rainbow is: a) Diffraction b) Dispersion c) Reflection d) Refraction

Fill in the Blanks:

6. The ability of the eye to focus on objects at different distances is called ___________.
7. The ___________ controls the size of the pupil and the amount of light entering the eye.
8. A person suffering from ___________ can see nearby objects clearly but has difficulty seeing distant objects.
9. The splitting of light into its different colors is known as ___________.
10. The ___________ is the light-sensitive part of the eye where the image is formed.

True or False:

11. The human eye works like a camera.
12. Hypermetropia is also known as nearsightedness.
13. The lens of the eye changes its shape to focus on objects at different distances.
14. The image formed on the retina is real and upright.
15. Dispersion is the bending of light when it passes from one medium to another.

Match the Following:

16. Cornea – A. Changes the shape to focus
17. Iris – B. Controls the amount of light
18. Lens – C. Transparent front part
19. Retina – D. Light-sensitive layer
20. Ciliary muscles – E. Controls the size of the pupil

Short Answer Questions:

21. Explain the process of accommodation of the eye.
22. Differentiate between myopia and hypermetropia.
23. How does the human eye perceive different colors?
24. Define the term ‘dispersion of light’.
25. Explain the formation of a rainbow with the help of a diagram.

Long Answer Questions:

26. Describe the structure and functions of the different parts of the human eye.
27. Explain how the eye adjusts its focal length when viewing nearby and distant objects.
28. Discuss the common vision defects and their corrections.
29. How does the eye focus on an object placed at varying distances? Use ray diagrams to illustrate.
30. Describe the process of formation of a rainbow in the sky.

Diagram-Based Questions:

31. Draw a labeled diagram of the human eye and explain the function of each part.
32. Illustrate the process of refraction of light through a convex lens with the help of a labeled diagram.
33. Draw a diagram showing the formation of an image on the retina.
34. Using a diagram, explain how the eye focuses on a nearby object.
35. Draw a diagram showing the dispersion of light through a prism.

Application-Based Questions:

36. How does the knowledge of the functioning of the human eye help in designing corrective eyeglasses?
37. Explain how a magnifying glass is designed using a convex lens.
38. Why does a person with myopia need concave lenses for correction?
39. How does the concept of dispersion help in the design of a spectrograph?
40. Discuss the role of refraction in the formation of a rainbow.

Analytical Questions:

41. Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of contact lenses over eyeglasses.
42. Compare and contrast the working of the human eye and a camera.
43. Analyze the factors contributing to the focusing ability of the human eye.
44. Explain the role of the brain in interpreting the signals received from the retina.
45. How does the phenomenon of scattering contribute to the blue color of the sky?

Reasoning Questions:

46. Why does the pupil of the eye appear larger in dim light and smaller in bright light?
47. Explain why a person suffering from presbyopia needs reading glasses.
48. How does the change in the refractive index of the eye lens lead to the condition of cataract?
49. Discuss why a person with hypermetropia cannot see nearby objects clearly without corrective lenses.
50. Give reasons why a concave lens is used to correct myopia.

Case-Based Questions:

51. A student complains of difficulty in seeing the blackboard clearly. What vision defect might the student be suffering from? Explain.
52. Imagine you are a scientist designing a new type of lens to correct vision problems. What features would you include and why?
53. A rainbow is often seen after rainfall. Explain the phenomenon behind the formation of a rainbow.
54. A person claims to see objects clearly only when they are very close to the eye. What might be the problem with this person’s vision? Suggest a solution.
55. Imagine you are explaining the functioning of the human eye to a younger student. How would you simplify the concepts?

Remember, the key to effective learning is not just memorizing the answers but understanding the concepts. These questions cover a range of question types to help students grasp the chapter thoroughly.

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs):

1. What is the unit of electric current? a) Volt b) Ohm c) Ampere d) Watt
2. The component used to control the flow of current in a circuit is called a: a) Battery b) Resistor c) Switch d) Capacitor
3. Which material is commonly used to make electrical wires due to its low resistance? a) Plastic b) Copper c) Silver d) Aluminum
4. An electric circuit in which the components are connected in a single path is called a: a) Series circuit b) Parallel circuit c) Complex circuit d) Open circuit
5. The potential difference across a resistor is 6V and the current flowing through it is 3A. What is the resistance? a) 18 Ohms b) 2 Ohms c) 9 Ohms d) 0.5 Ohms
6. In a parallel circuit, the voltage across each component is: a) Different b) Same c) Zero d) Variable
7. Which of the following is a good conductor of electricity? a) Rubber b) Glass c) Wood d) Iron
8. The instrument used to measure electric current is called a: a) Voltmeter b) Ammeter c) Galvanometer d) Ohmmeter
9. A device that protects a circuit from excessive current is called a: a) Fuse b) Resistor c) Switch d) Capacitor
10. What causes a short circuit? a) High resistance b) Low voltage c) Excessive current flow d) No current flow

True or False:

11. Electric current always flows from positive to negative terminals.
12. In a series circuit, the current remains the same throughout.
13. Voltage is the measure of the electric potential energy per unit charge.
14. A parallel circuit has only one path for current flow.
15. An insulator allows electric current to flow easily.
16. A resistor converts electrical energy into heat and light.
17. The resistance of a conductor increases with an increase in its length.
18. A circuit with a break is called a closed circuit.
19. A fuse wire is an example of a variable resistor.
20. Ammeter should be connected in parallel in a circuit.

Short Answer Questions:

21. Define electric current.
22. What is the potential difference between two points in an electric circuit?
23. Explain the concept of resistance.
24. Differentiate between series and parallel circuits.
25. State Ohm’s law.
26. Why is copper used for making electrical wires?
27. Define the term “open circuit.”
28. Why are fuses and circuit breakers important in electrical circuits?
29. How does the resistance of a conductor change with its thickness?
30. Describe the role of a switch in an electrical circuit.

Long Answer Questions:

31. Explain the working of an electric circuit using the water pipe analogy.
32. Describe the factors on which the resistance of a conductor depends.
33. Draw a circuit diagram for a series circuit with two bulbs. Explain what happens to the brightness of the bulbs when one bulb is removed.
34. Define the term “electric power.” How is it related to voltage and current?
35. Explain how a parallel circuit is different from a series circuit. Provide an example of each.
36. Calculate the resistance of a resistor if a potential difference of 12V across it results in a current of 4A.
37. How can you increase the total resistance in a parallel circuit? Explain the effect on the total current.
38. Define the term “short circuit.” How can it be prevented?
39. Explain why the filament of an electric bulb gets hot and emits light.
40. Describe the working of a fuse. Why is it important in a household circuit?

Application-Based Questions:

41. A circuit consists of a battery, a switch, and a bulb connected in series. If the switch is open, will the bulb glow?
42. A wire of resistance 10Ω is stretched to double its length. What will be its new resistance?
43. Why are electrical wires covered with an insulating material?
44. How does a three-pin plug provide safety during the use of electrical appliances?
45. An electric iron has a rating of 750W, 220V. Calculate the current flowing through it.
46. Why is the parallel arrangement of cells preferred over the series arrangement in batteries?
47. Explain why birds can safely sit on high-voltage power lines without getting electrocuted.
48. Can a circuit be closed using a resistor instead of a switch? Explain.
49. A student makes the following statements. Correct the incorrect ones: i. Voltmeter is always connected in series. ii. Ammeter measures potential difference.
50. In a household circuit, the bulbs are connected in parallel. If one bulb fuses, what happens to the others?

Remember, while these questions cover a range of difficulty levels, it’s important to consider the readiness of your students and the depth to which you have covered each topic in class. You can use these questions for class discussions, assignments, quizzes, or examinations.

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs):

1. What happens when a current-carrying conductor is placed near a magnetic compass? a) The compass needle remains unaffected. b) The compass needle deflects parallel to the conductor. c) The compass needle deflects perpendicular to the conductor. d) The compass needle moves away from the conductor.
2. Which of the following is responsible for the magnetic effect around a current-carrying conductor? a) Electric charge b) Electric potential c) Electric field d) Flow of electrons
3. The direction of the magnetic field around a current-carrying straight conductor can be determined using: a) Ampere’s law b) Ohm’s law c) Right-hand thumb rule d) Lenz’s law
4. Which device converts electrical energy into mechanical energy using the magnetic effect? a) Transformer b) Inductor c) Generator d) Rectifier
5. The strength of the magnetic field around a current-carrying conductor depends on: a) Resistance of the conductor b) Length of the conductor c) Nature of the conductor material d) Magnitude of the current

Fill in the Blanks:

6. The phenomenon by which a current-carrying conductor produces a magnetic field is called ________________.
7. The direction of the magnetic field produced by a straight current-carrying conductor is given by the ________________.
8. In a solenoid, the magnetic field lines are similar to that of a ________________.
9. An electromagnet is a temporary magnet created by wrapping a current-carrying conductor around an ________________.
10. Electric motors convert ________________ energy into ________________ energy.

True or False:

11. A straight current-carrying conductor produces a circular magnetic field around it. (True/False)
12. The strength of the magnetic field around a current-carrying conductor decreases as the current increases. (True/False)
13. The magnetic field lines inside a current-carrying solenoid are parallel and evenly spaced. (True/False)
14. The direction of the magnetic field produced by a current in a wire can be determined using Fleming’s left-hand rule. (True/False)
15. Electromagnets are used in devices like doorbells and cranes due to their temporary magnetic properties. (True/False)

Short Answer Questions:

16. Explain the magnetic effect of electric current.
17. State Ampere’s circuital law.
18. How does the strength of the magnetic field change when the current in a conductor is doubled?
19. Describe the magnetic field inside a current-carrying solenoid.
20. What is the purpose of a commutator in an electric motor?

Long Answer Questions:

21. Using the right-hand thumb rule, explain how you can determine the direction of the magnetic field produced by a current in a straight conductor.
22. Describe the working principle of an electric motor. Include the role of the magnetic effect in its operation.
23. Compare and contrast the magnetic field around a straight conductor and the magnetic field inside a solenoid.
24. Explain how an electromagnet works. Provide examples of its applications in everyday devices.
25. Discuss the significance of magnetic effects of electric current in the functioning of devices like transformers and generators.

Application-Based Questions:

26. An electric train is moving towards the north. In which direction will the needle of a compass inside the train point?
27. How is the magnetic field pattern around a current-carrying solenoid different from that around a permanent magnet?
28. Why is it difficult to start a stationary bicycle without a dynamo-powered light?
29. A current-carrying wire is placed in the east-west direction. In which direction will a compass placed above and below the wire point?
30. Explain the working of a doorbell, focusing on the role of magnetic effects of electric current.

Diagram-Based Questions:

31. Draw a labeled diagram showing the magnetic field lines around a straight current-carrying conductor.
32. Illustrate the magnetic field pattern inside a current-carrying solenoid.
33. Create a diagram showing the setup to demonstrate the magnetic effect of electric current using a compass and a wire.
34. Draw the basic diagram of an electromagnet, labeling its essential components.
35. Design a labeled diagram showing the internal structure of an electric motor.

Value-Based Questions:

36. Why is it important for students to understand the principles of magnetic effects of electric current in their daily lives?
37. Discuss the role of magnetic effects of electric current in the development of modern transportation systems.
38. How can knowledge of magnetic effects help in conserving energy and reducing wastage?
39. Explain the ethical considerations involved in the safe and responsible use of magnetic effects in various devices.
40. Reflect on the impact of magnetic effects of electric current on sustainable technologies and green energy solutions.

Remember that these questions are a comprehensive mix of different types and levels of questions that can help students grasp the concepts of the chapter “Magnetic Effects of Electric Current” effectively.

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

1. What is an ecosystem? a) A community of living organisms b) A group of different species c) A single species in a habitat d) A community of living and non-living things
2. Which of the following is a primary consumer in a food chain? a) Lion b) Hawk c) Grasshopper d) Snake
3. Which of the following is a decomposer? a) Tiger b) Eagle c) Mushroom d) Deer
4. What is the main source of energy in an ecosystem? a) Producers b) Consumers c) Decomposers d) Sun
5. What is biomagnification? a) Increase in biodiversity b) Increase in the number of organisms c) Increase in concentration of harmful substances d) Increase in primary productivity

True or False

6. True or False: A food web is a complex network of interconnected food chains.
7. True or False: Decomposers release nutrients back into the environment.
8. True or False: Energy flows through an ecosystem in a one-way direction.
9. True or False: Pollution has no impact on human health.
10. True or False: Overpopulation can lead to environmental degradation.

Fill in the Blanks

11. The transfer of food energy from one trophic level to another is called __________.
12. The ultimate source of energy in most ecosystems is the __________.
13. The first trophic level in a food chain consists of __________.
14. The process by which green plants use sunlight to make food is known as __________.
15. The process of breaking down dead organisms and organic waste is done by __________.

Matching Type

16. Match the following types of pollution with their descriptions: A. Air pollution 1. Contamination of water bodies B. Water pollution 2. Release of harmful substances into the air C. Noise pollution 3. Unwanted sound in the environment

Short Answer Questions

17. Define biodiversity and explain its significance.
18. Describe the difference between a food chain and a food web.
19. Explain the role of decomposers in an ecosystem.
20. What are the major causes of air pollution? Mention any two.

Long Answer Questions

21. Elaborate on the components of an ecosystem. How are they interrelated?
22. Describe the process of eutrophication and its effects on aquatic ecosystems.
23. Discuss the impact of deforestation on the environment and suggest measures to control it.
24. Explain the concept of the greenhouse effect and its implications on global warming.

Assertion and Reasoning

25. Assertion: Overgrazing can lead to desertification. Reasoning: Overgrazing reduces vegetation cover and soil fertility.

Case-Based Questions

26. Case Study: A pond near an industrial area is heavily polluted. Discuss the possible causes and effects of this pollution on both the ecosystem and the people living nearby.

Application-Based Questions

27. Imagine you are a wildlife conservationist. Describe the measures you would take to conserve the biodiversity of a rainforest.

HOTS (Higher Order Thinking Skills) Questions

28. Analyze the consequences of disrupting a single element in a food web.

Value-Based Questions

29. How can individual actions contribute to maintaining a balanced ecosystem? Provide examples.

Remember to mix and match these questions to create a balanced question paper, ensuring that various cognitive skills are assessed, and students are provided with an opportunity to showcase their understanding of the chapter “Our Environment”.